The rate a project earns, the rate it must beat, and the traps in comparing the two.
π Where this lives: IRR is the number the finance world actually speaks in. A private equity fund advertises "22% IRR", a bank quotes a loan's effective rate, and a development bank approves a road on its "economic internal rate of return". The reason is psychological rather than theoretical: a percentage is comparable across projects of any size, while an NPV in rupees is not β "22%" means something instantly, whereas "NPV of Rs 47 crore" means nothing until you know the investment. Search "internal rate of return private equity performance measure".
IRR: definition and calculation
THE INTERNAL RATE OF RETURN IS THE DISCOUNT RATE AT WHICH THE
NET PRESENT VALUE OF A PROJECT EQUALS ZERO.
Ξ£ Cβ / (1 + IRR)α΅ = 0
EQUIVALENTLY: the rate at which the present worth of the
benefits exactly equals the present worth of the costs. IT IS
THE RATE OF RETURN THE PROJECT ITSELF EARNS ON THE CAPITAL
STILL INVESTED IN IT β hence "internal": it depends only on the
project's own cash flows and on no external rate.
THERE IS NO CLOSED-FORM SOLUTION for more than a few periods,
because the equation is a polynomial of degree n. IRR IS FOUND
BY TRIAL AND ERROR WITH INTERPOLATION, and that procedure is
what an exam expects to see:
STEP 1 β Guess a rate and compute NPV.
STEP 2 β If NPV > 0 the rate is too low; increase it. If
NPV < 0 it is too high; decrease it.
STEP 3 β Find two rates that BRACKET zero: one with positive
NPV, one with negative.
STEP 4 β INTERPOLATE LINEARLY:
IRR β iβ + (iβ β iβ) Γ NPVβ / (NPVβ β NPVβ)
where NPVβ is positive at iβ and NPVβ negative at iβ.
WORKED β the running example: 100,000 invested, 30,000/yr for
5 years.
at i = 10%: NPV = β100,000 + 30,000(3.7908) = +13,724
at i = 20%: NPV = β100,000 + 30,000(2.9906) = β10,282
Both bracket zero, so interpolate:
IRR β 10 + (20 β 10) Γ 13,724 / (13,724 + 10,282)
= 10 + 10 Γ 0.5717
= 15.72%
THE EXACT VALUE IS 15.24%. The interpolation overestimates
by about half a point BECAUSE THE NPV CURVE IS CONVEX, NOT
STRAIGHT β a linear interpolation across a 10-point gap cuts
the corner. NARROWING THE BRACKET IMPROVES IT:
at 15%: NPV = +565; at 16%: NPV = β1,771
IRR β 15 + 1 Γ 565/(565 + 1,771) = 15.24% β
THE LESSON FOR THE EXAM: BRACKET TIGHTLY. Two rates one or
two points apart give a nearly exact answer; a wide bracket
does not.
THE DECISION RULE:
IRR > MARR β ACCEPT
IRR = MARR β indifferent
IRR < MARR β REJECT
MARR, and the traps
THE MINIMUM ATTRACTIVE RATE OF RETURN (MARR), also called the
hurdle rate or cut-off rate, IS THE LOWEST RETURN AN
ORGANISATION WILL ACCEPT ON AN INVESTMENT.
IT IS SET BY, in ascending order of what it must cover:
1. THE COST OF CAPITAL β what the money costs to raise,
whether borrowed or supplied by shareholders (the WACC).
THIS IS THE FLOOR: earning less than the capital costs
destroys value.
2. A RISK PREMIUM matched to the project's uncertainty. A
proven process gets a small premium; a new technology in
a new market gets a large one.
3. THE OPPORTUNITY COST β the return on the best available
alternative that will be forgone.
4. CAPITAL RATIONING. When there is more good work than
money, MARR is raised until the acceptable projects fit
the budget. IN THAT SITUATION MARR IS NOT REALLY A COST
AT ALL β it is a rationing device.
TYPICAL VALUES: 8β12% for low-risk utility investment, 15β20%
for industrial projects, 25%+ for high-risk ventures.
Development banks commonly use 10β12% for infrastructure in
developing economies.
THE THREE TRAPS IN USING IRR β each is a standard exam question.
ββ TRAP 1: MULTIPLE IRRs ββββββββββββββββββββββββββββββββββββ
DESCARTES' RULE OF SIGNS: a cash flow series can have AS MANY
IRRs AS IT HAS SIGN CHANGES.
A CONVENTIONAL project (one outflow followed by inflows) has
ONE sign change and therefore ONE IRR β the usual case.
A NON-CONVENTIONAL project (a later outflow β a mid-life
overhaul, a mine's restoration cost, a nuclear plant's
decommissioning) has more.
WORKED: cash flows β100,000, +300,000, β220,000.
Setting x = 1/(1+r), the equation is
β100,000 + 300,000x β 220,000xΒ² = 0
whose two roots give
IRR = 27.64% AND IRR = 72.36%
BOTH ARE MATHEMATICALLY CORRECT AND NEITHER IS MEANINGFUL.
The NPV is negative between them and positive outside, which
inverts the usual rule entirely:
at 10%: NPV = β9,091 at 25%: NPV = β800
at 30%: NPV = +592
IRR CANNOT BE USED HERE AT ALL. Use NPV, which gives one
unambiguous answer at the actual MARR.
ββ TRAP 2: THE REINVESTMENT ASSUMPTION ββββββββββββββββββββββ
IRR IMPLICITLY ASSUMES INTERMEDIATE CASH FLOWS ARE REINVESTED
AT THE IRR ITSELF. For a project with a 40% IRR, that assumes
every rupee it returns can immediately be reinvested at 40% β
WHICH IS USUALLY FALSE, since such opportunities are rare by
definition.
NPV, by contrast, assumes reinvestment at the DISCOUNT RATE,
which is precisely the return actually available elsewhere.
NPV'S ASSUMPTION IS THE REALISTIC ONE, and this is the main
theoretical argument for preferring it.
THE FIX, where IRR must be used: the MODIFIED IRR (MIRR),
which compounds the inflows forward at the MARR and then
solves for the single rate linking that future value to the
investment.
ββ TRAP 3: RANKING MUTUALLY EXCLUSIVE PROJECTS ββββββββββββββ
THE MOST IMPORTANT TRAP, because the error looks entirely
reasonable.
PROJECT A: cost 100,000, returns 30,000/yr for 5 yrs
IRR = 15.24%, NPV at 10% = +13,724
PROJECT B: cost 150,000, returns 42,000/yr for 5 yrs
IRR = 12.38%, NPV at 10% = +9,213
Here both criteria happen to prefer A. BUT CHANGE THE MARR
TO 5% AND THEY DISAGREE:
NPV at 5%: A = +29,884 B = +31,838 β B is better
IRR still says A (15.24% > 12.38%) β A is better
THE CONFLICT ARISES BECAUSE IRR IS A RATE AND IGNORES SCALE.
A high percentage on a small investment can create less
total value than a lower percentage on a larger one.
THE RESOLUTION β INCREMENTAL ANALYSIS, and this is the
technique the question is really testing:
DO NOT COMPARE IRRs DIRECTLY. Instead, ask whether the EXTRA
investment earns its keep.
1. Rank the alternatives by increasing initial cost.
2. Take the cheapest acceptable one as the current
champion.
3. Compute the INCREMENTAL cash flow (challenger β
champion) and its IRR.
4. IF THE INCREMENTAL IRR > MARR, the extra investment is
justified: the challenger becomes champion. Otherwise
keep the champion.
5. Repeat against the next alternative.
APPLIED TO A AND B:
incremental (B β A): β50,000 now, then +12,000/yr for 5
incremental IRR = 6.40%
AT MARR = 10%: 6.40% < 10% β REJECT the increment β
CHOOSE A. (NPV agrees: A 13,724 > B 9,213)
AT MARR = 5%: 6.40% > 5% β ACCEPT the increment β
CHOOSE B. (NPV agrees: B 31,838 > A 29,884)
INCREMENTAL ANALYSIS AND NPV NOW AGREE AT EVERY RATE. That
agreement is the point: 6.40% IS THE CROSSOVER RATE at
which the two NPV profiles intersect, and it is exactly the
IRR of the difference between them.
THE COMPARISON:
NPV IRR
βββββββββββββββββββββββββββββββββββββββββββββββββββββββββββ
result rupees of value a PERCENTAGE
reinvestment
assumed at the DISCOUNT RATE the IRR itself
(realistic) (often unrealistic)
multiple answers? NEVER possible, if signs
change
ranks mutually
exclusive
projects? YES, directly ONLY via incremental
analysis
value additive? YES NO
needs MARR
beforehand? YES no (only to judge the
result)
intuitive? less MORE β a percentage
needs no context
βββββββββββββββββββββββββββββββββββββββββββββββββββββββββββ
THE PROFESSIONAL PRACTICE: DECIDE WITH NPV, REPORT THE IRR.
IRR's one genuine advantage is the last row β it does not
require the MARR to be fixed before the analysis, so it can be
presented to an audience that disagrees about the appropriate
hurdle rate.
6.40% is the crossover rate β the discount rate at which A's and B's NPV profiles intersect β and it is exactly the IRR of the difference between them. That is why incremental analysis works: comparing IRRs directly ignores scale, but asking whether the extra Rs 50,000 earns more than the MARR restores agreement with NPV at every rate.
π Go further: IRR's reinvestment flaw is not a theoretical curiosity in the private equity industry β it is a live controversy. A fund that returns capital early can report a spectacular IRR because the measure implicitly credits it with reinvesting those proceeds at the same rate, which no fund can actually do. This is why sophisticated investors insist on seeing the multiple on invested capital (MOIC) or the public market equivalent alongside the IRR, and why funds have been accused of manipulating headline IRRs by using short-term credit lines to delay drawing investor capital β which shortens the measured holding period without changing a single underlying cash flow. Search "private equity IRR manipulation subscription credit lines".
π‘ Exam angle: define IRR as the rate where NPV = 0, and show the trial-and-error plus linear interpolation procedure with the formula β bracket tightly and mention that the convex NPV curve makes a wide bracket overshoot. State the rule IRR > MARR β accept and explain how MARR is set (cost of capital, risk premium, opportunity cost, capital rationing). The three traps are all examinable: multiple IRRs with the sign-change rule, the reinvestment assumption and MIRR, and above all ranking mutually exclusive projects β where you must demonstrate incremental analysis rather than comparing IRRs directly. Finish with the NPV-versus-IRR comparison table.
Syllabus points
Internal rate of return (numerical)
Minimum acceptable rate of return
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