Medicine β Anaemia, NMC MBBS licence examination syllabus (Nepal Medical Council).
Anaemia β NMC-style practice questions
Practice questions written for this chapter. These are not past NMC papers.
π About these questions: These are practice questions written to test the reasoning in this chapter. They are NOT reproduced from any past Nepal Medical Council examination, and no verified past NMC questions were supplied for this chapter.
Level 1β2 β recall and understanding
Q1. Which pattern of iron studies indicates IRON
DEFICIENCY rather than anaemia of chronic disease?
A. Low ferritin, high TIBC
B. High ferritin, low TIBC
C. Normal ferritin, normal TIBC
D. High ferritin, high TIBC
ANSWER: A β low ferritin with high TIBC.
Why: empty stores lower ferritin, and the body upregulates
transferrin to capture what iron there is, raising TIBC.
B: describes anaemia of chronic disease, where iron is
sequestered rather than absent.
LEARNING POINT: ferritin reflects stores; TIBC reflects the
attempt to acquire more.
Q2. Which deficiency causes subacute combined degeneration
of the spinal cord?
A. Iron B. Folate
C. Vitamin B12 D. Vitamin C
ANSWER: C β vitamin B12.
Why: B12 is required for myelin maintenance, and deficiency
damages the dorsal columns and corticospinal tracts. Folate
deficiency causes an identical anaemia but NO neurological
disease.
LEARNING POINT: this asymmetry is why folate must never be
given alone when B12 deficiency is possible.
Level 3β4 β application and clinical reasoning
Q3. A 70-year-old man has Hb 94 g/L, MCV 71 fL and
ferritin 9 Β΅g/L. Bowel habit is normal. The most
important management step is:
A. Oral iron and review in 3 months
B. Oral iron AND investigation of the gastrointestinal
tract
C. Blood transfusion
D. Reassure β this is age-related
ANSWER: B β iron AND GI investigation.
Why: iron deficiency in a man has no normal physiological
cause and indicates occult blood loss until proven otherwise.
A normal bowel habit does not exclude a right-sided colonic
tumour, which bleeds silently.
A: treats the number and misses the cause.
LEARNING POINT: the anaemia is the presenting sign of
something else.
Q4. A patient with rheumatoid arthritis has Hb 97 g/L,
MCV 77 fL, ferritin 90 Β΅g/L and CRP 70. The correct
interpretation is:
A. Iron deficiency is excluded by the ferritin
B. Iron deficiency may still be present β ferritin rises
with inflammation
C. This is certainly thalassaemia
D. Transfusion is required
ANSWER: B.
Why: ferritin is an acute phase protein. In active
inflammation a "normal" value can coexist with depleted
stores, and the microcytosis is a clue since anaemia of
chronic disease is more often normocytic.
LEARNING POINT: a LOW ferritin is diagnostic; a normal one
proves nothing in an inflamed patient.
Q5. A 60-year-old with macrocytic anaemia has paraesthesiae
and impaired proprioception. Folate is low; B12 result
pending. The correct action is:
A. Start folic acid now
B. Wait for the B12 and treat B12 first, or give both
C. Transfuse
D. Start iron
ANSWER: B.
Why: folate alone can partly correct the anaemia while
allowing subacute combined degeneration to progress. The
neurological signs point to B12 deficiency.
A: the specific error this question targets.
LEARNING POINT: replace B12 first, or give both together.
Level 5 β exception-based
Q6. A man develops acute haemolysis after nitrofurantoin.
Film shows bite cells; Coombs is negative. A G6PD assay
during the episode is normal. This means:
A. G6PD deficiency is excluded
B. The assay may be falsely normal because deficient
cells have already been destroyed
C. The haemolysis is autoimmune
D. The film is misreported
ANSWER: B.
Why: during acute haemolysis the oldest, most deficient
cells lyse first, leaving reticulocytes with higher enzyme
activity β so the assay reads falsely normal. Repeat it after
recovery.
C: a negative Coombs argues against an immune mechanism.
LEARNING POINT: timing changes the result. Retest when the
episode has settled.
Q7. A 26-year-old of South Asian origin has Hb 108 g/L,
MCV 63 fL, normal ferritin and a raised red cell count.
The most likely diagnosis is:
A. Iron deficiency anaemia
B. Thalassaemia trait
C. Anaemia of chronic disease
D. Megaloblastic anaemia
ANSWER: B β thalassaemia trait.
Why: marked microcytosis with only mild anaemia, a normal or
raised red cell count and normal iron studies is the classic
pattern. Iron deficiency reduces the red cell count as well
as the size.
A: excluded by the normal ferritin.
LEARNING POINT: giving iron here achieves nothing and risks
overload. Confirm with electrophoresis or HPLC, and consider
the genetic counselling implications.
Syllabus points
Recall and understanding questions
Application and clinical reasoning questions
Exception-based questions
Create a free account to tick topics off, take notes as you read, watch the video lessons and get a day-by-day study plan built around your exam date.