Medicine β Respiratory Medicine, NMC MBBS licence examination syllabus (Nepal Medical Council).
Asthma and COPD β NMC-style practice questions
Practice questions written for this chapter. These are not past NMC papers.
π About these questions: These are practice questions written to test the reasoning in this chapter. They are NOT reproduced from any past Nepal Medical Council examination, and no verified past NMC questions were supplied for this chapter.
Level 1β2 β recall and understanding
Q1. Which spirometry result indicates an OBSTRUCTIVE
pattern?
A. FEVβ/FVC < 0.70
B. FEVβ/FVC > 0.80 with reduced FVC
C. Normal FEVβ and FVC
D. Raised total lung capacity alone
ANSWER: A β FEVβ/FVC < 0.70.
Why: obstruction impairs getting air OUT, so FEVβ falls more
than FVC and the ratio drops.
B: a preserved or raised ratio with low volumes suggests
RESTRICTION.
LEARNING POINT: the ratio distinguishes obstruction from
restriction before you consider any diagnosis.
Q2. Which feature most suggests ASTHMA rather than COPD?
A. Progressive daily breathlessness over years
B. Symptom-free intervals with nocturnal wheeze
C. Heavy smoking history
D. Minimal bronchodilator reversibility
ANSWER: B β symptom-free intervals with nocturnal wheeze.
Why: variability is the hallmark of asthma. COPD is
persistent and progressive.
A, C, D: all point towards COPD.
LEARNING POINT: variability IS the diagnosis in asthma.
Level 3β4 β application and clinical reasoning
Q3. A 22-year-old with acute asthma becomes quieter on
auscultation and drowsy. Gas: pCOβ 5.8 kPa (was 3.1).
This indicates:
A. Clinical improvement
B. Near-fatal asthma with exhaustion
C. Successful bronchodilator response
D. Hyperventilation syndrome
ANSWER: B β near-fatal asthma.
Why: an acutely distressed asthmatic should be hypocapnic. A
rising pCOβ toward normal means they can no longer sustain
the work of breathing. A quiet chest means insufficient
airflow to generate a wheeze.
A, C: the dangerous misreading this question targets.
LEARNING POINT: both "improvements" here are deterioration.
Escalate to critical care.
Q4. A 55-year-old woman who has never smoked has fixed
airflow obstruction and 30 years of cooking on an
indoor wood fire. The most likely diagnosis is:
A. Asthma
B. COPD from biomass smoke exposure
C. Pulmonary fibrosis
D. Bronchiectasis only
ANSWER: B β COPD from biomass exposure.
Why: fixed obstruction with poor reversibility is COPD
physiologically. Indoor biomass smoke is a major cause in
South Asia and predominantly affects women.
A: asthma would show reversibility.
C: fibrosis gives a RESTRICTIVE pattern.
LEARNING POINT: a smoking-only history misses these patients.
Q5. A patient with COPD has SpOβ 78% during an
exacerbation. The correct action is:
A. Withhold oxygen because of COβ retention risk
B. Give controlled oxygen targeting 88β92% and check a
blood gas
C. Give high-flow oxygen targeting 99%
D. Give oxygen only if the patient becomes unconscious
ANSWER: B β controlled oxygen, targeting 88β92%.
Why: hypoxia at this level causes rapid organ injury, while
COβ retention develops more slowly and is manageable. The
answer is controlled oxygen with gas monitoring.
A, D: withholding oxygen from a severely hypoxic patient is
the more dangerous error.
C: uncontrolled high-flow risks worsening hypercapnia.
LEARNING POINT: neither withhold nor flood β titrate.
Level 5 β exception-based
Q6. A 30-year-old asthmatic with nasal polyps develops
severe bronchospasm after taking ibuprofen. The
mechanism is:
A. IgE-mediated anaphylaxis to ibuprofen
B. COX inhibition shunting arachidonic acid toward
leukotrienes
C. Direct beta-2 receptor blockade
D. Histamine release from mast cells
ANSWER: B β COX inhibition shifting metabolism toward
leukotrienes.
Why: in aspirin-exacerbated respiratory disease, inhibiting
cyclo-oxygenase diverts arachidonic acid down the
lipoxygenase pathway, increasing bronchoconstrictor
leukotrienes. The triad of asthma, nasal polyps and NSAID
sensitivity is characteristic.
C: that is the beta-blocker mechanism.
LEARNING POINT: it is pharmacological, not allergic β so it
will recur with any NSAID, not just this one.
Q7. A patient with asthma uses her reliever inhaler daily
and wakes at night twice weekly, taking her preventer
"when tight". The best FIRST step is:
A. Add a long-acting beta agonist alone
B. Check inhaler technique and adherence, and explain
that the preventer is taken daily
C. Prescribe a stronger reliever
D. Start oral steroids long term
ANSWER: B β technique and adherence first.
Why: frequent reliever use and night waking indicate
uncontrolled inflammation, and the preventer is not being
taken as a preventer. Escalating before checking this treats
a problem that does not exist.
A: a long-acting beta agonist must never be given without
an inhaled corticosteroid.
LEARNING POINT: most "uncontrolled asthma" is untaken or
badly taken medication.
Syllabus points
Recall and understanding questions
Application and clinical reasoning questions
Exception-based questions
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