Medicine β Neurology, NMC MBBS licence examination syllabus (Nepal Medical Council).
Stroke β NMC-style practice questions
Practice questions written for this chapter. These are not past NMC papers.
π About these questions: These are practice questions written to test the reasoning in this chapter. They are NOT reproduced from any past Nepal Medical Council examination, and no verified past NMC questions were supplied for this chapter.
Level 1β2 β recall and understanding
Q1. A stroke causing leg weakness greater than arm weakness
most likely involves which artery?
A. Middle cerebral B. Anterior cerebral
C. Posterior cerebral D. Basilar
ANSWER: B β anterior cerebral.
Why: the ACA supplies the medial hemisphere, where the leg
area of the motor homunculus lies.
A: MCA affects face and arm more than leg.
C: PCA causes visual field loss.
LEARNING POINT: derive it from the homunculus rather than
memorising a list.
Q2. What is the FIRST investigation in suspected acute
stroke, after checking glucose?
A. MRI brain with contrast
B. Non-contrast CT head
C. Carotid Doppler
D. Lumbar puncture
ANSWER: B β non-contrast CT head.
Why: it rapidly identifies haemorrhage, which is the decision
that determines whether treatment thins the blood or stops
the bleeding.
A: MRI is more sensitive for early infarct but slower and
less available acutely.
LEARNING POINT: the CT is there to rule out blood, not to
prove ischaemia.
Level 3β4 β application and clinical reasoning
Q3. A 70-year-old on gliclazide is found with acute right
hemiparesis and dysphasia. The FIRST action is:
A. Immediate thrombolysis
B. Check capillary blood glucose
C. Urgent MRI
D. Give aspirin
ANSWER: B β check the glucose.
Why: hypoglycaemia mimics stroke precisely and reverses
within minutes of treatment. A sulfonylurea makes it
substantially more likely.
A: dangerous before imaging and before excluding mimics.
D: premature before haemorrhage is excluded.
LEARNING POINT: glucose is in every stroke protocol for
exactly this reason.
Q4. A patient with a dense hemiparesis of 45 minutes has a
CT reported as normal. The correct interpretation is:
A. No stroke has occurred
B. Haemorrhage is excluded; this supports ischaemic
stroke and thrombolysis assessment
C. The scan must be repeated immediately
D. The patient has had a TIA
ANSWER: B.
Why: early ischaemic infarction is frequently invisible on CT
for several hours. The scan's job was to exclude haemorrhage
so that reperfusion can be considered.
A: the classic misreading.
D: a TIA implies resolved symptoms; this deficit is dense
and ongoing.
LEARNING POINT: a normal CT is the green light, not the
all-clear.
Q5. A 66-year-old had 15 minutes of arm weakness that has
fully resolved. ECG shows atrial fibrillation. The most
appropriate secondary prevention is:
A. Aspirin alone
B. Anticoagulation
C. No treatment as symptoms resolved
D. Antibiotics
ANSWER: B β anticoagulation.
Why: AF causes left atrial stasis and thrombus, which
embolises. Anticoagulation is substantially more effective
than antiplatelet therapy against that mechanism.
A: less effective for a cardioembolic source.
C: TIA carries the highest stroke risk in the days that
follow.
LEARNING POINT: identify the SOURCE β it changes the drug.
Level 5 β exception-based
Q6. A patient has LEFT facial weakness with RIGHT arm and
leg weakness. This localises to:
A. Left cerebral hemisphere
B. Right cerebral hemisphere
C. Brainstem
D. Spinal cord
ANSWER: C β brainstem.
Why: cranial nerve nuclei lie in the brainstem and supply the
ipsilateral face, while the corticospinal tract crosses lower
down. Only a lesion between the two produces crossed signs.
A, B: a hemispheric lesion affects face and limbs on the
SAME (contralateral) side.
LEARNING POINT: crossed signs are a brainstem signature, and
posterior circulation strokes are easily mistaken for
vestibular disease.
Q7. In acute ISCHAEMIC stroke not undergoing thrombolysis,
a blood pressure of 190/100 is usually managed by:
A. Rapid aggressive reduction to normal
B. Permissive hypertension, avoiding aggressive lowering
C. Immediate intravenous nitrates
D. Withholding all antihypertensives permanently
ANSWER: B β permissive hypertension.
Why: the ischaemic penumbra is perfused through collaterals
at the edge of viability. Dropping the systemic pressure
reduces that perfusion and can extend the infarct.
A, C: risk enlarging the infarct.
D: overstated β pressure is treated later, in the
secondary prevention phase.
LEARNING POINT: the opposite applies in haemorrhagic stroke,
where lowering pressure limits haematoma expansion. Same
number, opposite management, decided by the CT.
Syllabus points
Recall and understanding questions
Application and clinical reasoning questions
Exception-based questions
Create a free account to tick topics off, take notes as you read, watch the video lessons and get a day-by-day study plan built around your exam date.